Q1. According to the latest Air Quality Report (2024) which Indian City emerged as the most polluted ?

• (A) Guwahati
• (B) Saharsa
• (C) Begusarai
• (D) Kathar

Q2. Which position India got in EIU’s Democracy Index-2023 ?

• (A) 51 st
• (B) 65th
• (C) 41 st
• (D) 49 th

Q3. Who has been selected for the Bob Jones Award, the highest honour of the US Golf Association?

• (A) Tiger Woods
• (B) Jack Nicklaus
• (C) Walter Hagen
• (D) Harry Vardon

Q4. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Shinkun La tunnel is at an altitude of 15,855 ft.
Statement II: The length of Atal tunnel is about 6.02 km.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q5. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ram Mandir is designed in Maru-Gurjara sub-style.
Statement II: Ram Mandir is designed by the Sompura Family of Ahmedabad.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q6. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bab el-Mandeb strait off the tip of Yemen is a maritime choke point in Red Sea crisis.
Statement II: Bab el-Mandeb strait forms the western entrance to the Red Sea.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q7. Arrange the following Indian cricketers completing 1000 runs from youngest in age to eldest in age:
(1) Yashashvi Jaiswal
(2) Ravi Shastri
(3) Sachin Tendulkar
(4) Kapil Dev.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (3), (4), (2), (1)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (2), (1), (3), (4)

Q8. Arrange the following National days in chronological order of their occurrence:
(1) National Mathematics Day
(2) National Science Day
(3) National Youth Day
(4) National Energy Conservation Day.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
• (C) (3), (2), (4), (1)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q9. Arrange the occurrence of the following Global Summits of 2024 in chronological order:
(1) WTO
(2) G7
(3) UN Convention on Biological Diversity
(4) G20.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (4), (1), (2), (3)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
(1) ‘Risa’ is a traditional tribal dress of Assam.
(2) National Dolphin Research Centre was inaugurated at Patna.
(3) Underwater metro rail service has been inaugurated in Kolkata.
(4) Satellite and Payload Technology Centre has been started at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q11. Consider the following statements:
(1) XPoSat will unravel the mysteries of black holes.
(2) XPoSat has a cost more than $188 million.
(3) XPoSat expected lifespan is two years.
(4) XPoSat was launched from Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q12. Consider the following statements:
(1) The International Solar Alliance headquarters is located at Gurugram, Haryana.
(2) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is located at New Delhi.
(3) The International Solar Alliance was USA idea.
(4) Quad has brought together India and Russia.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q13. Consider the following statements:
(1) Computer scientist Hari Balakrishnan was awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize.
(2) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) raising day was revised in 2022.
(3) The widest gap of Western Ghats is at Palakkad in Kerala.
(4) Flyash is a wanted burnt residue in coal thermal power plants of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q14. Match List I with List II:
List I (Payload): (a) Cartosat-3, (b) Aditya-L1, (c) XPoSat, (d) RISAT-2B.
List II (Date of launch): (i) September 2, 2023, (ii) May 22, 2019, (iii) November 27, 2019, (iv) January 1, 2024.

• (A) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
• (B) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
• (C) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
• (D) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)

Q15. Match List I with List II:
List I (Summit in 2024): (a) ASEAN, (b) COP 29, (c) BRICS, (d) NATO.
List II (Location): (i) Baku, (ii) Kazan, (iii) Washington, (iv) Laos.

• (A) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
• (B) (ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
• (C) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
• (D) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)

Q16. Who wrote it, “If the producers are crippled, the farmers are burdened with taxes and a huge amount of the revenue is sent out of the country, then any country in the world will become permanently poor and will have to face famine again and again.”

• (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
• (B) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
• (C) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
• (D) Anand Mohan Bose

Q17. Dandra Movement, which took place against the New Land Settlement in Bilaspur in 1930, the people of which Pargana first started a movement against the land settlement ?

• (A) Ratanpur
• (B) Rampur
• (C) Bahadurpur
• (D) None of these

Q18. Who was the founder of “Balsan Thakuria”?

• (A) Moolchand
• (B) Kunwar Singh
• (C) Harichand
• (D) Alak Singh

Q19. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The author of the book “Pakistan or the Partition of India” was Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
Statement II: The childhood name of Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa was ‘Gadadhar’.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q20. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: “Bhartiya Rashtriya Samajik Sammelan” was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1883.
Statement II: Veda Samaj was established in 1867 at Karnataka.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q21. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chamba had its own currency since ancient times. This was called “Chakli”.
Statement II: Raja Lalit Verman of Chamba had built two temples named ‘Chandragupta’ and ‘Kameshwar’ in Chamba.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q22. Arrange the following events related to Indian History in chronological order:
(1) Formation of East India Association in London
(2) Formation of India League in Calcutta
(3) Formation of Satyashodhak Samaj
(4) Establishment of Bihar Scientific Society.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (4), (2), (1), (3)
• (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (C) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (D) (4), (1), (3), (2)

Q23. Arrange these Pre-Congress Associations in chronological order:
(1) Indian Association
(2) Bombay Presidency Association
(3) British Indian Association
(4) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (3), (4), (2)
• (B) (3), (1), (2), (4)
• (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
• (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Q24. Arrange the following rulers of ‘Suket State’ in chronological order :
(1) Bhimsen
(2) Rudrasen
(3) Ugrasen
(4) Lakshmansen.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (B) (3), (2), (1), (4)
• (C) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (D) (3), (1), (2), (4)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
(1) Paramhansa Mandali was established in Madras.
(2) Alfred Webb was the first Englishman to become the President of Indian National Congress.
(3) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim to become the President of Indian National Congress.
(4) The Indian National Congress did not participate in the Third Round Table Conference held in London.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q26. Consider the following statements:
(1) In 1910, at Allahabad Session of Indian National Congress was “Jana- Gana-Mana” sung for the first time.
(2) Swami Dayanand Saraswati had hoisted the ‘Pakhand Khandini Pataka’ at Allahabad in 1867 A.D.
(3) The last Act was the Charter Act of 1853 for the East India Company.
(4) The modern educated Indians also did not support the Revolt of 1857.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q27. Consider the following statements:
(1) The first Singh Sabha was founded in 1873 at Amritsar.
(2) Gyan Singh was the first President of Singh Sabha.
(3) Thakur Singh Sandhawalia was the first Secretary of Singh Sabha.
(4) Khalsa College, Amritsar was established in the year 1892.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (1) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q28. Match List I with List II:
List I (Governor General/Viceroy): (a) Lord Lansdowne, (b) Lord Northbrook, (c) Lord Dufferin, (d) John Lawrence.
List II (Major Events): (i) Establishment of High Court in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras, (ii) Indian Council Act of 1892, (iii) Third Anglo-Burmese War, (iv) Kuka Movement in Punjab.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (C) (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
• (D) (i)(iv)(iii)(i)

Q29. Match List I with List II:
List I (Association/Parties): (a) Punjab Riyasati Praja Mandal, (b) Adivasi Mahasabha, (c) Depressed Classes Mission, (d) Independent Labour Party.
List II (Formation Year): (i) 1906, (ii) 1936, (iii) 1928, (iv) 1938.

• (A) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
• (C) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (D) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

Q30. Match List I with List II:
List I (Newspaper/Magazine): (a) Amrit Bazar Patrika, (b) Harish Chandra Magazine, (c) Bombay Chronicle, (d) Bharat Mitra.
List II (Publising Year): (i) 1913, (ii) 1878, (iii) 1868, (iv) 1872.

• (A) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (C) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
• (D) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

Q31. Podu form of shifting cultivation is popular in which of the following states of India?

• (A) Odisha
• (B) Assam
• (C) Kerala
• (D) Chhattisgarh

Q32. Shisgars are the skilled workers of:

• (A) Polymer Industry
• (B) Glass Industry
• (C) Drug Industry
• (D) Ceramics Industry

Q33. Lyons is a major industrial town of:

• (A) France
• (B) Spain
• (C) Germany
• (D) Italy

Q34. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Escurial is a famous structure of France.
Statement II: Brandenburg Gate is a famous structure of Jerusalem.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q35. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Patsari river is a small tributary of Tons river.
Statement II: Patsari river originates near Kharapather in Shimla district.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q36. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bara Shigri glacier was first surveyed by Walker and Poscoe in 1906.
Statement II: Bara Shigri is the largest glacier in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q37. Arrange the following states of India from highest to lowest flood prone area:
(1) Bihar
(2) Punjab
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Uttar Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (4), (1), (2), (3)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (1), (3), (2), (4)

Q38. Arrange the following centres of cotton textile industry in India from north to south:
(1) Phagwara
(2) Cuttack
(3) Guntur
(4) Tirupati.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (D) (1), (3), (2), (4)

Q39. Arrange the following countries of Europe from East to West:
(1) Ukraine
(2) Belgium
(3) Poland
(4) Germany.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (3), (4), (2)
• (B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
• (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
• (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Q40. Consider the following statements:
(1) Simlipal biosphere reserve is in Tamil Nadu.
(2) Panna biosphere reserve is in Madhya Pradesh.
(3) Bhadrak mangroves pertain to Odisha.
(4) Gulf of Kutch is the largest mangrove of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (1) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q41. Consider the following statements :
(1) Tel is a right bank tributary of Mahanadi.
(2) The delta of the Godavari river is lobate type.
(3) Bhima river originates from Raj Mahal Hills.
(4) The Penganga river is 300 km long and rises from Satpura Hills.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (1) and (3) only
• (C) (2) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q42. Consider the following statements:
(1) Essex city is famous for engineering works.
(2) Leeds city is famous for watches production.
(3) Baku city is known for cutlery industry.
(4) Abadan city is known for oil refinery.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2) and (4) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q43. Match List I with List II:
List I (Glacier): (a) Baltoro, (b) Sonapani, (c) Milam, (d) Zemu.
List II (Range/Region): (i) Pir Panjal, (ii) Kanchenjunga-Everest, (iii) Karakoram, (iv) Kumaon-Garhwal.

• (A) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
• (C) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
• (D) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

Q44. Match the forest cover area/type with their total area in Himachal Pradesh (2021):
List I (Density/Total Forest Cover): (a) Very dense forest above 70 percent, (b) Moderate dense forest 40 to 70 percent, (c) Open forest 10 percent to 40 percent, (d) Total forest cover.
List II (Area in sq. kms.): (i) 7,100, (ii) 5,180, (iii) 15,443, (iv) 3,163.

• (A) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
• (B) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
• (C) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (D) (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

Q45. Match List I with List II:
List I (City): (a) Warsaw, (b) Lisbon, (c) Hamburg, (d) Bristol.
List II (River): (i) Vistula, (ii) Tagus, (iii) Elbe, (iv) Avon.

• (A) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (C) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (D) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)

Q46. Who described the Indian economy as “Bullock Cart Economy”?

• (A) Granville Austin
• (B) Atul Kohli
• (C) Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph
• (D) Rajni Kothari

Q47. Council of Ministers’ size has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which constitutional amendment ?

• (A) 91st Amendment
• (B) 92nd Amendment
• (C) 95th Amendment
• (D) 103rd Amendment

Q48. Who among the following was not a member of the Advisory Council for Himachal Pradesh which was constituted on Sept. 30, 1948?

• (A) Swami Purnanand
• (B) Mehta Avtar Chand
• (C) Lila Devi
• (D) Satya Dev Bushahri

Q49. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Finance Minister is final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not.
Statement II: In Indian system of ‘dyarchy’ was introduced by Government of India Act, 1935 during British period.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q50. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: B. R. Ambedkar started Vaikam Satyagrah in 1924 for temple entry of untouchables.
Statement II: Jyotiba Phule was not associated with Republican Party.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj system in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement I: In 1949, the Punjab Village Panchayat Act of 1939 was enforced and 132 panchayats were established in Himachal.
Statement II: By the end of 1956, there were 466 Gram Panchayats and 26 Tehsil Panchayats in Himachal.
Choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) Both statements are correct
• (B) Only statement I is correct
• (C) Only statement II is correct
• (D) Both statements are incorrect

Q52. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Right to Information Act ?
(1) This act came into force on 12 October 2005.
(2) It repealed the Official Secret Act, 1923.
(3) It replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
(4) It does not protect freedom of expression and speech under Article 19.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (1), (2), (3)
• (C) (3), (4), (1)
• (D) (1) and (2)

Q53. Consider the following statements:
(1) Baba Kansi Ram was a great freedom fighter of Himachal Pradesh.
(2) He was influenced by Gadar Party.
(3) He took oath to wear Black Clothes till India gets independence.
(4) He was given name of “Pahari Gandhi” by Sarojini Naidu.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (4) and (2) only

Q54. Consider the following statements :
(1) Mandi was first state in Shimla Hill States in which Panchayati Raj Act was passed.
(2) During freedom movement Lala Lajpat Rai never visited Mandi.
(3) Non-cooperation Movement did not start in Himachal Pradesh.
(4) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur from Shimla conducted Quit India Movement.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (4) and (1) only

Q55. Consider the following statements:
(1) Constitution amendment bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament.
(2) Centre and States have equal power to amend the constitution.
(3) Amendment in the seventh schedule requires the ratification by the legislatures of not less than half of the states.
(4) Basic structure of the constitution can also be amended.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (4) and (1) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q56. Consider the following statements: Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
(1) A dispute between Govt. of India and one or more states.
(2) A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament.
(3) A dispute between Govt. of India and a Union Territory.
(4) A dispute between two or more states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q57. Consider the following statements:
(1) There is no mention of no-confidence motion in the Constitution of India.
(2) A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
(3) A money bill can be tabled in either house of Parliament.
(4) The President cannot return a money bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (3) only

Q58. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Habeas Corpus Writ, (b) Mandamus Writ, (c) Certiorari Writ, (d) Quo Warranto Writ.
List II: (i) Re-examining Lower Court records by Superior Court, (ii) Exercising Power under which authority, (iii) Restricting officials to act, (iv) To produce in person.

• (A) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (B) (iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
• (C) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
• (D) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)

Q59. Match List I with List II:
List I (Commissions): (a) National Commission for Women, (b) National Human Rights Commission, (c) Kaka Kalelker Commission, (d) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights.
List II (Years of Establishment): (i) 1953, (ii) 1992, (iii) 2005, (iv) 1993.

• (A) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (B) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
• (C) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (D) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)

Q60. Match the Members of Legislative Assembly of Part ‘C’ state of Himachal Pradesh from Mandi District (1952-56) with respective constituencies:
List I (Name of the Members): (a) Gauri Prasad, (b) Karam Singh Thakur, (c) Besar Ram, (d) Rattan Singh.
List II (Name of the Constituency): (i) Joginder Nagar, (ii) Karsog, (iii) Rewalsar, (iv) Mahadev.

• (A) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (D) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)

Q61. Till when the Indian government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Gharib Kalyan Anna Yojana ?

• (A) December 2026
• (B) December 2027
• (C) December 2028
• (D) December 2030

Q62. Economic Growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if:

• (A) There is technical progress in the world economy
• (B) There is population growth in country X
• (C) There is capital formation in country X
• (D) The volume of trade grows in the world economy

Q63. Suppose, the poverty line as measured by Monthly Per Capita Expenditure is Rs. 1,000.
MPCE (in Rs.) of 10 Households: State A ; State B .
Statement I: Head Count Ratio of State A is less than Head Count Ratio of State B.
Statement II: Poverty Gap Ratio of State A is less than Poverty Gap Ratio of State B.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q64. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Trickle Down Theory says that let business flourish, since their profits ultimately trickle down to lower income individuals.
Statement II: Economic Theory predicts that inequality will increase during recessions and decline during economic booms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q65. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: As of December 2023, around 1.3 crore candidates have received training under PMKVY.
Statement II: Out of these candidates around 60 lakh individuals have been placed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q66. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The volume of E-way bill generation in India continues to grow steadily.
Statement II: Rail freight traffic and port cargo traffic are growing at a healthy pace.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q67. Consider the following Health programmes and policy :
(1) The National Health Policy
(2) National Health Mission (NHM)
(3) National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
(4) National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
With reference to the Health programmes and policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year which one of the following is the correct order year? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (C) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (D) (4), (1), (3), (2)

Q68. What is the correct order of various social service schemes in India according to year of origin?
(1) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
(2) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
(3) Rashtriy Swasthya Bima Yojana
(4) National Social Assistance Scheme.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (D) (1), (2), (4), (3)

Q69. With reference to the steady decline in the mortality rate over the years, consider the following statements:
(1) Control of epidemics such as cholera and smallpox
(2) Expansion in incidence of malaria and tuberculosis
(3) Contraction of education and decreased literacy
(4) Improved sanitation and hygiene.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (4) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q70. Consider the following statements:
(1) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 1200 crore rupees for economic services during 2022-23.
(2) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 267 crore rupees for rural development during 2022-23.
(3) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 140 crore rupees for Mahatma Gandhi National Employment Guarantee Scheme during 2022-23.
(4) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 22 crore rupees for Forestry and Wildlife during 2022-23.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (2) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q71. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Sandeep Shastri, (b) Kalpana Srivastava, (c) N. Neetha, (d) Mridul Eapen.
List II: (i) “Gender Demographics and Empowerment in India”, (ii) “Demographic Profile and Health Status of Older Adults in India”, (iii) “Demographic Dividend in India: Myth or Reality”, (iv) “Demographic Shift and its Impact on Indian Politics”.

• (A) (iii)(i)(i)(iv)
• (B) (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
• (C) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
• (D) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)

Q72. Arrange the following Committees in proper chronological order of their establishment:
(1) Alagh Committee
(2) Tendulkar Committee
(3) Rangarajan Committee
(4) Lakdawala Committee.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
• (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Q73. Arrange the following events in proper chronological order :
(1) Mahbul-ul-Haq prepared the HDI (Human Development Index)
(2) Morris D. Morris developed the PQLI (Physical Quality of Life Index)
(3) Alkire and Foster developed the MPI (Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index)
(4) The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ coined by Bhutan’s king Jigme Singye Wangchuck.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (4), (2), (3)
• (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
• (C) (4), (2), (1), (3)
• (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Q74. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) SDG 2, (b) SDG 5, (c) SDG 8, (d) SDG 10.
List II: (i) Decent Work, (ii) Zero Hunger, (iii) Gender Equality, (iv) Reduced Inequality.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
• (C) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (D) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)

Q75. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Chronic Poor, (b) Churning Poor, (c) Non-Poor, (d) Occasionally Poor.
List II: (i) Below the poverty line most of the time, (ii) Rich most of the time but sometimes, out of a business fluctuation become poor, (iii) Always above the poverty line, (iv) Regularly move in and out of poverty.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (i)(iv)(iii)(ii)
• (C) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (D) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)

Q76. The marginal productivity of disguised unemployed workers is :

• (A) Zero
• (B) Not zero
• (C) Less than zero
• (D) Greater than zero

Q77. What percent agriculture and its allied industries account for the total Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of Himachal Pradesh ?

• (A) 13.70%
• (B) 10.61%
• (C) 15.10%
• (D) 14.91%

Q78. Arrange the following years based on the number of foreign tourist arrivals in Himachal Pradesh in descending order:
(1) 2020
(2) 2021
(3) 2022
(4) 2023 (up to December 2023).
Choose the correct option:

• (A) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (B) (4), (1), (3), (2)
• (C) (3), (1), (2), (4)
• (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Q79. For the year 2022-23, match the Industry sub-sector in Himachal Pradesh with the percentage of workers employed in them:
List I (Industry Sub-sector): (a) Mining and Quarrying, (b) Manufacturing, (c) Electricity and Other Utilities, (d) Construction.
List II (Percentage of Workers Employed): (i) 2, (ii) 41, (iii) 50, (iv) 7.

• (A) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (B) (ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
• (C) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
• (D) (iii)(i)(ii)(iv)

Q80. For the year 2023-24, match the type/name of banks with their total number of branches in Himachal Pradesh :
List I (Type/Name of Bank): (a) Public Sector Banks (PSBs), (b) Private Sector Banks (PSBs), (c) Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank (HPGB), (d) Himachal Pradesh Co-operative Sector Banks.
List II (No. of Branches in HP): (i) 267, (ii) 568, (iii) 1,170, (iv) 274.

• (A) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
• (B) (ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
• (C) (i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
• (D) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)

Q81. Gir National Park was established in the year :

• (A) 1955
• (B) 1974
• (C) 1975
• (D) 1968

Q82. In Japan, a cyclone is called as:

• (A) Hurricane
• (B) Typhoon
• (C) Willy-Willy
• (D) Whirlpool

Q83. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Directorate of Forest Education is located at Agartala.
Statement II: Tropical Forestry Research Institute is located at Jabalpur.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q84. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Teak is the dominant species in vast saline regions of India.
Statement II: Babul vegetation pertains to tropical evergreen rain forests.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q85. Arrange the following National Parks of India from East to West:
(1) Corbett National Park
(2) Kanger Ghati National Park
(3) Rohla National Park
(4) Valvadore National Park.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (C) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Q86. Arrange the following Institutes of India from North to South :
(1) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources
(2) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources
(3) National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources
(4) National Bureau of Agricultural Insect Resources.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
• (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
• (C) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (D) (1), (3), (2), (4)

Q87. Consider the following statements:
(1) Travancore agrobiodiversity Hot spot pertain to Rajasthan.
(2) Konkan agrobiodiversity Hot spot is in Maharashtra and Goa.
(3) National Herbarium of cultivated plants is at New Delhi.
(4) Triveni agrobiodiversity Hot spot pertain to Assam.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (4) only

Q88. Consider the following statements:
(1) Monkey valley lies in Chamba.
(2) Kiarda Dun valley lies in Kangra.
(3) The Great Himalayas are referred as Alpine zone in Himachal Pradesh.
(4) Churadhar pertain to Zanskar range in Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1) and (3) only
• (C) (3) and (4) only
• (D) (1) and (2) only

Q89. Match List I with List II:
List I (Ramsar Site): (a) Rudrasagar lake, (b) Harike lake, (c) Deepor Beel lake, (d) Vembanand wetland.
List II (Name of State): (i) Punjab, (ii) Assam, (iii) Tripura, (iv) Kerala.

• (A) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (C) (iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
• (D) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

Q90. Match List I with List II:
List I (Waterfall): (a) Rahla, (b) Bhagsu, (c) Badri, (d) Chadwick.
List II (District): (i) Solan, (ii) Kangra, (iii) Shimla, (iv) Kullu.

• (A) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
• (B) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
• (C) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (D) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

Q91. Arrange the following climatic zones of Himachal Pradesh according to rainfall amount from lowest to highest :
(1) Frigid aridic zone
(2) Wet temperate zone
(3) Humid sub-tropical zone
(4) Sub-humid sub-tropical zone.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
• (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
• (C) (1), (3), (4), (2)
• (D) (4), (1), (3), (2)

Q92. Which of the following processes is not related to nutrition ?

• (A) Ingestion
• (B) Assimilation
• (C) Egestion
• (D) Scouring

Q93. The process by which the heat comes to us from the sun is called :

• (A) Convection
• (B) Radiation
• (C) Conduction
• (D) Dispersion

Q94. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Upper jaw is an immovable joint.
Statement II: The cartilages are harder than bones.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q95. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Rusting of Iron is a chemical change.
Statement II: The process of depositing a layer of Zinc on Iron is called galvanisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q96. Arrange the following gases according to speed of sound in them from lowest to highest:
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Helium
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (2), (1), (3), (4)
• (B) (1), (3), (2), (4)
• (C) (4), (3), (1), (2)
• (D) (3), (4), (1), (2)

Q97. Consider the following statements:
(1) The innermost part of flower is called ovary.
(2) Leaf usually has a lamina.
(3) Roots absorb water and minerals from the soil.
(4) Petals is not the part of a flower.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (4) only
• (C) (2) and (3) only
• (D) (3) and (4) only

Q98. Consider the following statements:
(1) Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
(2) Secretion of estrogen occurs in males.
(3) Deficiency of iodine may cause dwarfism.
(4) Thyroid gland regulates metabolism for body growth.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

• (A) (1) and (3) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (4) only
• (D) (2) and (4) only

Q99. Match List I with List II:
List I (Acid): (a) Lactic, (b) Oxalic, (c) Tartaric, (d) Formic.
List II (Found in): (i) Curd, (ii) Spinach, (iii) Ant’s sting, (iv) Grapes.

• (A) (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
• (B) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
• (C) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (D) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)

Q100. Match List I with List II
List I (Scientist): (a) Galileo, (b) Hertz, (c) Robin Warren, (d) Edward Jenner.
List II (Country): (i) Germany, (ii) England, (iii) Italy, (iv) Australia.

• (A) (iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
• (B) (iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
• (C) (iii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (D) (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)