Q1. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) ‘Dhauladhar Range’ branches off from the Great Himalayan Range near Badrinath
(ii) The Pir-Panjal range separates the drainage of the river Spiti from that of the river Beas.
(iii) The Zanskar range is the easternmost range which separates Spiti and Kashmir from Tibet.
(iv) The ‘Gumrang and Sholarang’ passes connect the basin of the river Chamdrabhaga with its basin in Tibet.

• (A) (iv) only
• (B) (i) and (iii)
• (C) (ii) and (iv)
• (D) (ii) only

Q2. Select the incorrect combination from the following:
(i) Bahadurpur and Bandla ranges : Demi Valley
(ii) Markanda and Dharti ranges : Dun and Sproon Valleys
(iii) Chandertal lake : Kunzam range
(iv) Source of Parvati river : Mantilai lake.

• (A) (i) and (iv)
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
• (D) (ii) only

Q3. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) According to G.A. Grierson, Kehluri is an offshoot of rude Punjabi.
(ii) Kinnauri-Jangram mixture is the dialect used in Rakcham and Chitkul villages of Sangla Tehsil.
(iii) The dialect spoken in the Rampur Bushehr, Kumarsain and Kotgarh regions and in the nearby parts of the Satluj Valley is called Kochi.
(iv) According to Dr. Bholanath Tiwari, Pahari language originated from ‘Dardi and Pishchi’.

• (A) (iv) Only
• (B) (iii) Only
• (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (D) (ii) and (iv) Only

Q4. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(i) The ‘Khunds’ are the martial people of Kangra.
(ii) The most popular dance of Kinnaur is ‘Kayang’.
(iii) ‘Burah’ is a famous group dance of Mandi.
(iv) The Buddhist people of Lahual-Spiti and Kinnaur perform mask dances.

• (A) (ii) and (iii)
• (B) (ii) and (iv)
• (C) (i) and (iii)
• (D) (iii) only

Q5. Which of the following statements about ‘Jal-Jeevan-Mission’ is not correct?
(i) In H.P. it is targeted to include every rural household in providing ‘Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every family by June, 2022.
(ii) Out of 17.28 lakh households, 15.80 lakh were provided FHTC upto December, 2021.
(iii) In Himachal Pradesh 91% of the households have been provided with domestic connection against a national average of 45.50 percent.
(iv) Himachal Pradesh places at 8th position in the country for providing FHTC.

• (A) All of the above
• (B) None of the above
• (C) (i) and (iii)
• (D) (ii) and (iv)

Q6. Select the correct statements from the following:
(i) Supreme Court of India has allowed the State for silviculture green felling of three species on experimental basis.
(ii) Forests in H.P. cover an area of 37947 sq. kms of total geographical area of the state.
(iii) In H.P. presently 30% of the total geographical areas support forest cover.
(iv) The aim of the forest department is to enhance the forest cover in the state of 35% of its geographical area by 2030.

• (A) (iii) and (iv)
• (B) (i) and (ii)
• (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (D) None of these

Q7. Match List I with List II:
List I: (i) Total geographical area of H.P., (ii) Total area of operational holding, (iii) Area operated by number of farmers, (iv) Average holding size.
List II: (a) 55.67 lakh hectare, (b) 4.95 lakh hectare, (c) 0.95 hectare, (d) 9.97 lakh, (e) 9.44 lakh hectare.

• (A) (a)(b)(e)(c)
• (B) (a)(c)(e)(d)
• (C) (a)(e)(d)(c)
• (D) (a)(d)(b)(c)

Q8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(i) The foodgrain production in 2020-21 in H.P. was 15.28 lakh M.T.
(ii) The production of potato in the year 2020-21 in H.P. was 1.97 lakh M.T.
(iii) The production of vegetables in H.P. during the year 2020-21 was 18.61 lakh M.T.
(iv) The target of foodgrain production in H.P. for 2020-21 was 16.35 lakh metric tonnes.

• (A) (iii) only
• (B) All of these
• (C) None of these
• (D) (ii) and (iv)

Q9. Which of the following statements about tea production in H.P. is correct?
(i) There are 5900 tea growers in the state.
(ii) Total area under tea cultivation in H.P. is 2500 hectares.
(iii) In 2020-21 tea production in H.P. was 11.45 lakh kilograms.
(iv) Small and marginal farmers are provided agriculture inputs on 50% subsidy basis.

• (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (B) (ii) only
• (C) All of these
• (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Q10. Select the incorrect statements from the following:
(i) H.P. has been assessed second top performer in terms of Human Resource Development and Public Infrastructure among Hill States during 2020-21.
(ii) Bilaspur district has been ranked at number one on the basis of District Good Governance Index (DGGI) – 2020.
(iii) Shimla district ranked fifth in DGGI – 2020.
(iv) Hamirpur has improved its position to the fourth in terms of Transparency and Accountability Index.

• (A) All of these
• (B) (ii) and (iii)
• (C) (i) and (ii)
• (D) (iii) and (iv)

Q11. Select the correct statement/s about banking in H.P.:
(i) As per 2011 census, the average population per branch in the state was 4059.
(ii) The state has a network of 4422 bank branches.
(iii) Shimla is the only urban centre in the state classified by RBI.
(iv) PNB has the largest network of 530 branches in H.P.

• (A) None of these
• (B) (iii) only
• (C) (ii) and (iii) only
• (D) All of these

Q12. Which of the following is not the main objective of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana – Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR)?
(i) To strengthen the farmer’s efforts…
(ii) To promote value chain addition…
(iii) To attend national priorities…
(iv) To empower youth through skill development…

• (A) (iii) and (iv)
• (B) All of these
• (C) None of these
• (D) (i) and (ii)

Q13. Match List-I and List-II with regard to plan outlays (2021-22):
List-I: (i) Agriculture and Allied Services, (ii) Energy, (iii) Transport, (iv) Social Services.
List-II: (a) 3221.49 crore, (b) 903.57 crore, (c) 2724.32 crore, (d) 773.30 crore.

• (A) (c)(a)(d)(e)
• (B) (d)(b)(c)(a)
• (C) (d)(e)(b)(a)
• (D) (e)(c)(d)(a)

Q14. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The traditional council of Khampas is known as ‘Shuzam Chungi’.
(ii) The common term for widow re-marriage used by Pangwals is ‘Doghri’.
(iii) The ‘Bushehr State’ was also known as ‘Maon’ or ‘Mone’.
(iv) According to Bhagawant Puran, ‘kinner’ trace their origin from the shadow of ‘Brahma’.

• (A) (ii) only
• (B) All of these
• (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Q15. Read the following sentences and select the incorrect one:
(i) St. Andrew’s Church in Chamba carries the influence of Scottish architecture.
(ii) The architecture of ‘Manimahesh Lakshana Devi Temple’ is ‘Indo-Aryan Nagar style (Shikhar)’.
(iii) ‘Champavati temple’ in Chamba is built in ‘Graeco Buddhist art of Gandhara’.
(iv) The brass idol of the Goddess at Chatrari Shakti Devi temple in Chamba district is in the ‘Kashmiri style’.

• (A) (ii) and (iii)
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) (i) and (iv)
• (D) None of these

Q16. Choose the incorrect answer from the following:
(i) Abode of Goddess Mathi is ‘Chitkul’.
(ii) A living geographical museum is ‘Lingti valley’.
(iii) Chasak Bhatori is the highest village in ‘Lahaul valley’.
(iv) The highest peak of the Kinner Kailash massif in ‘Jorkanden’.

• (A) (iii) only
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) (i) only
• (D) (ii) only

Q17. Select the correct statement/s from the following:
(i) Mahmud of Ghazni, made a raid on Nagarkot (Kangra) in 1008-09 A.D.
(ii) Hiuen-Tsang stayed for sometime at Sirmaur with the monk Jaya Guptam.
(iii) Prince Nasir-ud-Din ascended the throne of Kangra under the name of Muhammad Tughlaq.
(iv) The Nagarkot fort remained under the possession of Timur-e-Lang till AD 1043.

• (A) (ii) and (iii)
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (D) All of these

Q18. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
(i) The battle of Nadaun was fought between Rajan Bhim Chand of Kahlur and the Mughals.
(ii) In the battle of ‘Dhalog’ Raja Janardhan of Chamba was defeated.
(iii) Raja of Hindur, Hari Chand was killed by Guru Govind Singh in the battle of ‘Bhangani’.
(iv) The Gurkhas defeated the Kangra forces at ‘Mahal Morian’ in 1806.

• (A) None of these
• (B) All of these
• (C) (ii) and (iii)
• (D) (i) and (iv)

Q19. Select the correct statement/s from the following:
(i) Khoksar is located on the old trade route from Indian plains to the West Asia.
(ii) The coins of Adumbras shows that the tribe was worshipers of Lord Vishnu.
(iii) In Mahabharata, it is mentioned that the Adumbra is the name of the sage Vyas.
(iv) The tribal republics of H.P. were ‘Sangha Janapadas’.

• (A) (ii) only
• (B) (iv) only
• (C) (i) and (iv)
• (D) (ii) and (iii)

Q20. Which of the following statement/s about Kullu is/are not correct?
(i) Kullu remained part of Punjab state till 31st October, 1966.
(ii) Kullu was a sub-division of Kangra district since 1846.
(iii) Alexander Cunningham and A.T. Banon were the first Europeans to visit Kullu in 1820 A.D.
(iv) The idol of ‘Raghunath Ji’ was brought from Ayodhya to Kull during the reign of Raja Jagat Singh.

• (A) (ii) only
• (B) (iii) only
• (C) (i) and (iv)
• (D) (ii) and (iv)

Q21. Consider the following statements:
(1) Bajrang Punia has become the first Indian to win 4 medals at World Wrestling Championships.
(2) Ujjain has been nominated as the first ever SCO Tourism and Culture Capital during 2022-2023.
(3) Indian Army has decided to shift the Army Day Parade of 2023 to Central Command.
(4) Chhello Show film has been announced as India’s official entry to Oscars 2023.
Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3)
• (B) (1) and (4)
• (C) (2), (3) and (4)
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q22. Consider the following statements:
(1) Global Fintech Conference in 2022 was held in Mumbai.
(2) Tripura State has launched ‘CM da Haisi’ web portal.
(3) Rohit Sharma has surpassed Pakistan Captain Babar Azam in the recently ICC T-20 rankings.
(4) District Disability Rehabilitation Centre is an initiative of Union Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3)
• (B) (2), (3) and (4)
• (C) (2) and (3)
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
(1) Telangana State has announced India’s first Breakfast scheme for government school students.
(2) The term Prompt Corrective Action is related to framework under which Banks with weak financial ratios are watches by RBI.
(3) Amongst Union Territories Puducherry has become India’s first Swachh Sujal Pradesh.
(4) Prime Minister has launched national logistics policy.
Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) (2) and (4)
• (B) (1), (2) and (3)
• (C) (2), (3) and (4)
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q24. Consider the following statements:
(1) Reliance has been conferred with the ‘Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar’ for 2021-22.
(2) Satish Adiga has been conferred with top French civilian honour.
(3) ‘Chandler Wobble’ is related to Black Hole.
(4) The new Naval Ensign features the national emblem inside blue Octagon shape.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (A) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
• (B) (2), (3) and (4)
• (C) (1), (3) and (4)
• (D) (1), (2) and (3)

Q25. Which of the following statement/s about ‘State Food Safety Index’ for the year 2021-22 is/are correct?
(1) Among the large states Himachal Pradesh got 4th rank.
(2) Among the small states Goa got 2nd rank.
(3) Among Union Territories Delhi and Chandigarh got 1st and 2nd ranks.

• (A) (1) and (2) only
• (B) (2) and (3) only
• (C) (1) and (3) only
• (D) (1) only

Q26. Consider the following statements:
(1) Tamil Nadu State is in the process of developing a Dugong (Sea Cow) reserve
(2) “Blue Book” is the manual of National Security Guard.
(3) ‘CiSS application’ under Baal Swaraj portal is used in the context of rehabilitation of children.
(4) Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) is located in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3)
• (B) (2), (3) and (4)
• (C) (1) and (3)
• (D) (2) and (4)

Q27. Consider the following statements:
(1) Bangladesh will host Women’s Twenty-20 Asia Cup 2022.
(2) China has successfully cloned the wild Arctic wolf for the first time in the world.
(3) In 2023, BRICS summit will be held in Brazil.
(4) Equal Pay International Coalition is an initiative of G-20.
Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) (1) and (2)
• (B) (2) and (3)
• (C) (3) and (4)
• (D) (1) and (4)

Q28. Consider the following statements:
(1) Giorgia Meloni became the first female Prime Minister of Italy.
(2) Tajikistan hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit, 2022.
(3) UAE has signed an MOU with China’s space agency to work together on moon missions.
(4) Devastation storm Nanmadol had struck Laos.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3)
• (B) (2) and (4)
• (C) (1) and (3)
• (D) (2), (3) and (4)

Q29. Ukraine shares borders with which of the following countries?
(1) Belarus
(2) Romania
(3) Hungary
(4) Georgia.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
• (B) (1), (3) and (4) only
• (C) (1), (2) and (4) only
• (D) (2), (3) and (4) only

Q30. Consider the following statements:
(1) U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres Roza Otunbayeva a former President of Kazakhstan as his new special envoy for Afghanistan.
(2) ‘Meritorious Service Medal’ to Admiral Sunil Lanba, former Navy Chief of India was awarded by Singapore.
(3) Germany is the host of the World Water Congress and Exhibition 2022.
(4) Qimingxing – 50 is the name of the first fully solar-powered UAV of South Korea.
Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) (1) and (2)
• (B) (2) and (3)
• (C) (3) and (4)
• (D) (1) and (4)

Q31. Consider the following statements:
(1) U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres Roza Otunbayeva a former President of Kazakhstan as his new special envoy for Afghanistan.
(2) Russia has become the first country to approve the world’s first needle-free, inhaled version of the COVID-19 vaccine.
(3) As per the latest figures from the IMF (September 2022), France economy is the fifth largest economy in the world.
(4) China is the President of the G-20 in 2022.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (A) (1), (2) and (3)
• (B) (2), (3) and (4)
• (C) (1), (3) and (4)
• (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q32. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Winter Olympics Games Beijing, 2022-Country): (a) China, (b) Germany, (c) Norway, (d) United States of America.
List-II (Medals won): (i) 37, (ii) 25, (iii) 27, (iv) 15.

• (A) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
• (C) (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
• (D) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

Q33. The Airvateshwara Temple at Darasuram was built by:

• (A) Chola King Rajaraja – II
• (B) Chola King Kulothunga – III
• (C) Chola King Parantaka – I
• (D) Chera King Nedum Cheralathan

Q34. Which among the following Drama/Book was not written by famous poet Bhasa?

• (A) Karnabhara
• (B) Urubhanga
• (C) Dutvakya
• (D) Shishupalvadh

Q35. Which pair is not correctly matched?

• (A) Pietro Della Valle : French (France)
• (B) John Fryer : England
• (C) Niccolao Manucci : Italy
• (D) Joannes-De-Laet : Dutch

Q36. Who was the author of the book “Tarikh–i-Rashidi”

• (A) Ahmed Yadgaar
• (B) Mirza Haidar Dughlat
• (C) Gulam Hussain
• (D) Shaikh Rizqullah Mushtaqui

Q37. Who was the founder of “Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science” (1876)?

• (A) C.V. Raman
• (B) Mahendra Lal Sarkar
• (C) Father Lafont
• (D) Ashutosh Mukherjee

Q38. Who said, “Lord Ripon, the saviour of Indian and his rule the beginning of a Golden Age of India”?

• (A) Florence Nightingale
• (B) P.E. Roberts
• (C) Lovat Frazer
• (D) Eric Stokes

Q39. Who said, “Raja Rammohan was the only person in his time to realise completely the significance of the modern age”?

• (A) Aurobindo Ghosh
• (B) Rabindranath Tagore
• (C) Sumit Sarkar
• (D) Barun De

Q40. Which among the following books was not written by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

• (a) The Annihilation of Caste
• (b) States and Minorities
• (c) What congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchable
• (d) India in Transition

Q41. Which pair is not correctly matched?

• (A) Sadler University Commission : 1917
• (B) Hunter Education Committee : 1887
• (C) The Hartog Committee : 1929
• (D) Indian Universities Act : 1904

Q42. Where was the “Indian independence Committee” Set up by Lala Hardayal and his friends?

• (A) Rome (Italy)
• (B) Berlin (Germany)
• (C) London (England)
• (D) Paris (France)

Q43. Milam glacier is located in

• (A) Karakoram region
• (B) Pir Panjal Region
• (C) Nepal Region
• (D) Kumaun Garhwal Region

Q44. Zojila Pass is located in:

• (A) Punjab Himalayas
• (B) Kumaun Himalyas
• (C) Nepal Himalayas
• (D) Assam Himalayas

Q45. Vadinar Oil refinery is managed by:

• (A) Reliance industries
• (B) Bharat Petroleum
• (C) Essar oil Ltd.
• (D) Hindustan Petroleum

Q46. Which of the following countries is landlocked?

• (A) Peru
• (B) Bolivia
• (C) Surinam
• (D) Uruguay

Q47. Where are the Balearic Islands located?

• (A) Mediterranean Sea
• (B) Black Sea
• (C) Baltic Sea
• (D) North Sea

Q48. Turkey is Located between

• (A) Black sea and Caspian Sea
• (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
• (C) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
• (D) Dead Sea and Black Sea

Q49. Flemish are the tribes of;

• (A) Croatia
• (B) South Africa
• (C) New Zealand
• (D) Belgium

Q50. Make a Sequence of the following countries from North to South:
1. Romania, 2. Bulgaria, 3. Ukraine, 4. Greece.
Choose the correct answer:

• (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
• (B) 3, 1, 2, 4
• (C) 4, 3, 2, 1
• (D) 3, 2, 4, 1

Q51. Match List I with List II
List-I (Sea): (a) Black Sea, (b) Red Sea, (c) Yellow Sea, (d) Caspian Sea.
List-II (Country): (i) Bulgaria, (ii) China, (iii) Eritrea, (iv) Kazakhstan.

• (A) (i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
• (D) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)

Q52. Match List I with List II:
List I (Minerals): (a) Mica, (b) Bauxite, (c) Manganese, (d) Copper.
List II (Place): (i) Khetri, (ii) Hazaribagh, (iii) Palamau, (iv) Keonjhar.

• (A) (i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
• (D) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)

Q53. Match List I with List II:
List I (Dam): (a) Nagarjun Sagar, (b) Matatilla, (c) Maithon, (d) Hirakund.
List II (River): (i) Mahanadi, (ii) Barakar, (iii) Krishna, (iv) Betwa.

• (A) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
• (C) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (D) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)

Q54. Who decides the matter of disqualification of MLA for matters other than those given in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?

• (A) Speaker Legislative Assembly
• (B) High court
• (C) Governor
• (D) State Election Commission

Q55. Which article of the Constitution of India bars a member of parliament from holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state?

• (A) Article 100 (1)(b)
• (B) Article 101 (1)(c)
• (C) Article 102 (1)(a)
• (D) Article 103 (1)(d)

Q56. What is the object of cut motion?

• (A) To reduce income tax
• (B) To reduce excise duty
• (C) To reduce expenditure in the Budget Proposals
• (D) To reduce plan expenditure

Q57. Through 73rd constitutional Amendment Act 1/3 seats for the women are reserved in the Panchayats under which article?

• (A) Article 243 – A
• (B) Article 243 – B
• (C) Article 243 – C
• (D) Article 243 – D

Q58. When any official does not perform his duty, High Court/ Supreme Court can issue which writs?

• (A) Habeas Corpus
• (B) Prohibition
• (C) Mandamus
• (D) Quo Warranto

Q59. Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for economically Weaker Section (EWS) in 2019?

• (A) Article 15 (1) and 16 (1)
• (B) Article 15 (2) and 16 (2)
• (C) Article 15 (4) and 16 (4)
• (D) Article 15 (6) and 16 (6)

Q60. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to:

• (A) Seek the leave of the house to introduce a bill
• (B) Censure the Government
• (C) Propose a reduction in the budget
• (D) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance

Q61. Judiciary in India enjoys the power of Judicial Review on the Principle of “procedure established by Law” which means:

• (A) Judge in Indian can declare a law invalid simply because in their opinion the law is not due
• (B) Judges in India can questions the validity of undue law, provided it is within the limits of constitution
• (C) Judges in India cannot question the validity of law, provided it is within the limits of constitution
• (D) None of the above

Q62. Regarding the Interim Government of 1946 which of the following is not correct?

• (A) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister/Head of the Executive Council.
• (B) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
• (C) The Viceroy continue to be the Head of the Executive Council.
• (D) The members of the Interim Government were members of Viceroy’s Executive Council.

Q63. What do you understand by “Zero Hour’ in the Indian Parliament procedure?

• (A) The Time at the end of the question hour and before the debate on other agenda of the day
• (B) Time just before the question hour
• (C) When any special privilege motion is accepted
• (D) First hour of the session

Q64. What constitute definition of money Bill under Article 110 of Indian Constitution?

• (A) The imposition, abolition, alteration in regulation of any tax
• (B) The regulation of borrowings of money
• (C) The appropriation of money out of the consolidated fund of India
• (D) All of the above

Q65. What is the current Position of Representation of Anglo Indian in the Lok Sabha?

• (A) Two Anglo Indian are nominated by the President
• (B) One Anglo – Indian is represented
• (C) Nomination of them has been done away with by 104th Constitutional amendment
• (D) They are nominated as per their population.

Q66. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: According to a world Bank working paper, extreme poverty in India dropped to 10.2% in the Pre – Covid Year of 2019 from as much as 22.5% in 2011.
Statement II: The paper uses the consumer pyramids Household survey (CPHS) to provide estimate of how poverty and inequality in India have evolved since 2011.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Development expenditure of the Central Government does not includes defense expenditure and grants to states.
Statement II: Non-development expenditure involves interest payments and subsidies.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q68. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Deficit financing cannot create inflation in an economy.
Statement II: If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, the credit creation will decline.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q69. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Low-Income countries (LICs) and lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have high prospective growth rates and high marginal productivities of capital.
Statement II: They should borrow, and borrow heavily, in order to finance a broad-based increase in investments…

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q70. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The average SDG Index score declined in 2021 as compared to 2020…
Statement II: Among G20 member states, the United States, Brazil and the Russian Federation exhibit most support for the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q71. Consider the following statements:
(1) If Indian economy is in equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, then government expenditure must be equal to government income.
(2) In pursuance with the recommendation of Narsimham Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines to setup more foreign exchange banks.
(3) Redistribution policies geared to reduce economic inequalities include progressive tax policies.
(4) The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in Taylors Agreement.

• (A) 1 and 3 only
• (B) 2 and 3 only
• (C) 1 and 4 only
• (D) 2 and 4 only

Q72. Consider the following statements:
(1) Gross capital formation consists of outlays on additions to the fixed assets of the economy plus gross changes in the level of inventories.
(2) Net value added at factor cost is the sum total of all the factor payments.
(3) The National Income is the total amount of income accruing to a country from economic and non-economic activities in a year time.
(4) In moving from national income to personal income we must subtract the incomes earned but not received and add incomes received but not currently earned.

• (A) 1 and 3 only
• (B) 2 and 3 only
• (C) 1 and 4 only
• (D) 2 and 4 only

Q73. Consider the following statements:
(1) The green economy could add more than 54 million jobs worldwide by 2030.
(2) World over the additional investment to avoid future pandemics is estimated to be only $15 billion a year.
(3) Over 90 percent of countries saw their HDI value drop in either 2020 or 2021.
(4) The economic gains from phasing out coal could amount to as much as 1.7 percent of global GDP every year.

• (A) 1 and 3 only
• (B) 2 and 3 only
• (C) 1 and 2 only
• (D) 3 and 4 only

Q74. Consider the following Statements:
(1) The Positive Peace Index measures the positive peace of 143 countries.
(2) It covers 59.6 percent of the world population.
(3) Positive peace is defined as the attitudes, institutions and structures that create sustain peaceful societies.
(4) It is based on more than 45,700 data series.

• (A) 1 and 3 only
• (B) 2 and 3 only
• (C) 1 and 2 only
• (D) 3 and 4 only

Q75. Consider the following Statements:
(1) The Global Health Security Index is a measure of pandemic (COVID-19) preparedness.
(2) Compared with the rest of the world, a higher percentage of people in OECD countries tend to be covered by public or mandatory private health insurance.
(3) “30 x 30” target relates to poverty eradication.
(4) World over, cities and other urban areas are home to around 25 percent of humanity.

• (A) 1 and 3 only
• (B) 2 and 3 only
• (C) 1 and 2 only
• (D) 3 and 4 only

Q76. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Gini coefficient, (b) PISA Score, (c) Human Trophic Level, (d) Palma ratio.
List II: (i) a measure of the energy intensity of diet composition, (ii) assesses how far students near the end of compulsory education have acquired some of the knowledge and skills… (iii) measures the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households… (iv) The share of all income received by the 10% people with highest disposable income divided by the share…

• (A) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (D) (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

Q77. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Conglomerate, (b) Golden handshake, (c) Blue Chip, (d) Laissez Faire.
List II: (i) The company that has acquired interest in different industries… (ii) an economic system in which transactions between private groups of people are free… (iii) an employment agreement with states that the employer will provide a significant severance package… (iv) stock in a stock corporation with a national reputation for quality reliability…

• (A) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
• (D) (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

Q78. ‘Day Zero’ refers to which city as South Africa?

• (A) Johannesburg
• (B) Durban
• (C) Cape Town
• (D) Pretoria

Q79. ECOLEX is controlled by:

• (A) FAO
• (B) CSD
• (C) UNFCCC
• (D) IPCC

Q80. Most of the air pollution that we experience is located in:

• (A) Mesosphere
• (B) Thermosphere
• (C) Stratosphere
• (D) Troposphere

Q81. Deep underground reservoir of water are called as:

• (A) Karst
• (B) Aquifer
• (C) Buffer
• (D) Baseflow

Q82. Who gave the concept of biodiversity hotspots?

• (A) E. P. Odum
• (B) Norman Myers
• (C) James Lovelock
• (D) Rachel Carson

Q83. Which of the following sanctuaries is not known for tigers?

• (A) Kawal Sanctuary
• (B) Kaziranga National Park
• (C) Dudhwa National Park
• (D) Hazaribagh National Park

Q84. When was the process of identifying the key Biodiversity Areas started in India?

• (A) 1972
• (B) 2003
• (C) 1998
• (D) 2007

Q85. Match List I with List II:
List I (Air Pollution Incident): (a) Meuse (1930), (b) Donora (1948), (c) Bhopal (1984), (d) London (1952).
List II (Country): (i) England, (ii) India, (iii) USA, (iv) Belgium.

• (A) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
• (C) (iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
• (D) (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)

Q86. Match List I with List II:
List I (Plant Name Local): (a) Toona, (b) Khejri, (c) Alder, (d) Jammi.
List II (State): (i) Telangana, (ii) Manipur, (iii) Rajasthan, (iv) Nagaland.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
• (C) (ii)(iv)(i)(iii)
• (D) (iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

Q87. Match List I with List II:
List I (Sanctuary): (a) Bhadra, (b) Dalma, (c) Gumti, (d) Jaldapara.
List II (Location): (i) Jharkhand, (ii) Tripura, (iii) West Bengal, (iv) Karnataka.

• (A) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (B) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
• (C) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
• (D) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

Q88. Match List I with List II:
List I (Wetland): (a) Deepor Beel, (b) Asthamudi, (c) Loktak, (d) Kanjali.
List II (State): (i) Kerala, (ii) Assam, (iii) Punjab, (iv) Manipur.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (B) (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
• (C) (iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
• (D) (ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

Q89. Match List I with List II:
List I (Policy): (a) Wildlife, (b) Forest, (c) Environment, (d) Pollution.
List II (Year): (i) 1992, (ii) 1972, (iii) 1988, (iv) 2006.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
• (B) (ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
• (C) (ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
• (D) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)

Q90. Fats are made from edible oils using the process of:

• (A) Saponification
• (B) Esterification
• (C) Catalytic hydrogenation
• (D) Hydrogenation

Q91. The main precursors of winter smog are:

• (A) N 2 O and hydrocarbons
• (B) NO 2 and hydrocarbons
• (C) SO 2 and hydrocarbons
• (D) SO 2 and ozone

Q92. Most kidney stones are composed of:

• (A) Calcium carbonate
• (B) Calcium oxalate
• (C) Magnesium carbonate
• (D) Magnesium oxalate

Q93. There are two statements given below:
Statement I: A traveler crossing the international date line from east to west loses a day.
Statement II: A traveler crossing the international date line from west to east gains a day.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q94. There are two statements given below:
Statement I: Steam produces less severe burns than water at the same temperature.
Statement II: Dry ice is colder than regular ice.

• (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
• (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
• (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Q95. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves according to the increasing frequency:
(1) Gamma rays, (2) X-rays, (3) Radio waves, (4) Microwaves.

• (A) 3, 4, 2, 1
• (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
• (C) 2, 1, 4, 3
• (D) 4, 3, 1, 2

Q96. Arrange the following atmosphere layers in the correct order from the surface of the earth:
(1) Mesosphere, (2) Troposphere, (3) Thermosphere, (4) Stratosphere.

• (A) 2, 4, 3, 1
• (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
• (C) 2, 4, 1, 3
• (D) 3, 1, 4, 2

Q97. Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options:
(1) A concave mirror is a diverging mirror
(2) Image formed by a concave mirror is generally real and inverted
(3) A convex mirror is a converging mirror
(4) Image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual, erect and diminished.

• (A) 1 and 2 only
• (B) 1 and 3 only
• (C) 2 and 4 only
• (D) 3 and 4 only

Q98. Consider the given four statements about ethanol and choose the correct answer from the given options:
(1) It is the main constituent of all alcohol drinks
(2) It is not a good solvent
(3) It is soluble in water in all proportions
(4) It cannot be used as an additive in petrol.

• (A) 1 and 2 only
• (B) 1 and 3 only
• (C) 2 and 4 only
• (D) 1 and 4 only

Q99. Match List I with List II:
List I (Acid): (a) Ascorbic Acid, (b) Malic Acid, (c) Formic Acid, (d) Tartaric Acid.
List II (Source): (i) Apples and pears, (ii) Ant stings, (iii) Tamarind and grapes, (iv) All citrus fruits.

• (A) (ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
• (B) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
• (C) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
• (D) (iv)(iii)(i)(ii)

Q100. Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Hydrophone, (b) Megaphone, (c) Anemometer, (d) Tachometer.
List II: (i) An instrument measuring the rotation speed of a shaft or disk, (ii) An instrument that measures wind speed, (iii) An instrument that spreads sound to far-off places, (iv) An underwater device that detects and records ocean sounds from all directions.

• (A) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
• (B) (i)(iii)(ii)(iv)
• (C) (i)(ii)(iv)(iii)
• (D) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)